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In a test of a weight loss program, weights of 40 subjects are recorded before and after the program. Assume that the before/after weights result in r = 0.876.
Is there sufficient evidence to support a claim of a linear correlation between before/after weights?
Does the value of r indicate that the program is effective in reducing weight? Why or why not?
Please make your initial post by midweek, and respond to at least one other student’s post by the end of the week. Please check the Course Calendar for specific due dates.
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