John Stuart Mill says that he is not discussing “liberty of the will,” but “civil or social liberty.”, Philosophy discussion help

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1. John Stuart Mill says that he is not discussing “liberty of the will,” but “civil or social liberty.” What is the distinction he is making? Could someone like Pereboom who is a hard incompatibilist accept Mill’s political views? Or would his stand in opposition to free will commit his to be opposed to Mill’s political liberty? Would Stace’s compatibilism require him to accept Mill’s political views? Or could he favor free will, while opposing Mill’s political liberty? In other words, are they two separate issues? Or does your position of free will influence your position on political freedom, and vice versa?

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