Critical Analysis Portfolio And Presentation Proposal

For this first milestone, you will select an issue or topic in diversity to analyze through the four general education lenses. You will also analyze the issue or topic’s relationship to culture and society.

Remember to keep your sites trained on diversity. For example, it’s not enough to do your paper on opioid addiction but not also address issues relating to differential access depending on, for example, race and socio-economic status.

If you need help deciding on a topic below are topics to name a few to choose from:

Opioid addiction, treatment, and access to healthcare comparing diverse populations (race, gender, class)

Conflicts in the intergenerational workplace

The [mis]representation of women in the media (i.e., sexual objectification)

White privilege, Male privilege, Heterosexual privilege, Class privilege

Women exercising power over their own bodies ( or not); reproductive justice

The vilification of the poor

The War on Drugs in Black Communities

These are just a few ideas, but you no doubt have some of your own. Reach out to me and share your vision with me, and I’ll let you know if it’s a go. The main thing is that no matter what topic you decide to go with, you make sure that it’s Diverse. Try to pull in two to three different categories relative to the four dimensions of diversity introduced in Module One (and also included as easy reference in Module Two).

Attached is the rubric (PLEASE FOLLOW THE RUBRIC!!) and the resources needed to be used to complete this assignment. YOU MUST USE THE RESOURCES ATTACHED BELOW FOR THIS ASSIGNMENT.

  • attachment

    MilestoneOneGuidelinesandRubriccopy.pdf
  • attachment

    IntroductiontoDiversity.pdf
  • attachment

    ModuleOverview1-Diversity.docx
  • attachment

    IntersectionalityandLiberalEducation.pdf
  • attachment

    DimensionsofDiversity.pdf
  • attachment

    BeyondIntersectionality.pdf
  • attachment

    FourGeneralEduc

FIN571 Multiple Choice Questions

The primary goal of financial management is to:

minimize operational costs and maximize firm efficiency.

maximize current dividends per share of the existing stock.

maximize the current value per share of the existing stock.

avoid financial distress.

maintain steady growth in both sales and net earnings.

2

Financial managers should primarily strive to:

maximize current dividends even if doing so adds financial distress costs to the firm.

minimize costs while increasing current dividends.

maximize the current value per share of existing stock.

maximize current market share in every market in which the firm participates.

maximize the current profits of the firm.

3.

If a firm is currently profitable, then:

its reported sales exceed its costs.

its cash flows are known with certainty.

its current cash inflows must exceed its current cash outflows.

it will always have sufficient cash to pay its bills in a timely manner.

the timing of the cash flows on proposed projects is irrelevant.

4. The owners of a limited liability company generally prefer:

having liability exposure similar to that of a general partner.

having liability exposure similar to that of a sole proprietor.

being taxed like a corporation.

being taxed personally on all business income.

being taxed like a corporation with liability like a partnership.

5.

First City Bank pays 6 percent simple interest on its savings account balances, whereas Second City Bank pays 6 percent interest compounded annually.

 

If you made a $69,000 deposit in each bank, how much more money would you earn from your Second City Bank account at the end of 10 years? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

 

  Difference in accounts $

 

6.

a. Compute the future value of $2,000 compounded annually for 10 years at 6 percent. (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

 

  Future value $

 

b. Compute the future value of $2,000 compounded annually for 10 years at 11 percent. (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

 

  Future value

 

c. Compute the future value of $2,000 compounded annually for 15 years at 6 percent. (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

 

  Future value

7.

What is the future value of $3,052 invested for 9 years at 5.00 percent compounded annually?

$4,450.57

$1,923.52

$4,720.69

$4,734.65

$4,748.62

 

8.

Six months ago, you purchased 1,200 shares of ABC stock for $21.20 a share and have received total dividend payments of $.60 a share. Today, you sold all of your shares for $22.20 a share. What is your total dollar return on this investment?

$1,440

$720

$3,840

$1,200

$1,920

 

9.

The excess return you earn by moving from a relatively risk-free investment to a risky investment is called the:

inflation premium.

geometric average return.

time premium.

risk premium.

arithmetic average return.

10.

Which one of the following accounts is included in stockholders’ equity?

intangible assets

plant and equipment

accumulated retained earnings

deferred taxes

long-term debt

11.

Shelton, Inc., has sales of $391,000, costs of $179,000, depreciation expense of $44,000, interest expense of $25,000, and a tax rate of 40 percent. (Do not round intermediate calculations.)

 

What is the net income for the firm?

 

  Net income $

 

Suppose the company paid out $34,000 in cash dividends. What is the addition to retained earnings?

 

  Addition to retained earnings $

 

12

Net working capital is defined as:

current assets plus fixed assets.

current assets minus current liabilities.

current assets plus stockholders’ equity.

fixed assets minus long-term liabilities.

total assets minus total liabilities.

13

Which one of these equations is an accurate expression of the balance sheet?

Stockholders’ equity ≡ Assets + Liabilities

Stockholders’ equity ≡ Assets −Liabilities

Liabilities ≡ Stockholders’ equity −Assets

Assets ≡ Stockholders’ equity −Liabilities

Assets ≡ Liabilities −Stockholders’ equity

14

 Galaxy United, Inc.
2009 Income Statement
($ in millions)
  Net sales $8,450
  Less: Cost of goods sold 7,220
  Less: Depreciation     410
  Earnings before interest and taxes 820
  Less: Interest paid       83
  Taxable Income 737
  Less: Taxes     258
  Net income $   479

 

  Galaxy United, Inc.
2008 and 2009 Balance Sheets
($ in millions)
  2008 2009     2008 2009
  Cash $     110 $   150     Accounts payable  $1,100   $1,130
  Accounts rec. 940 780     Long-term debt     1,000     1,332
  Inventory 1,490 1,510     Common stock $3,110 $2,910
  Sub-total $2,540 $2,440     Retained earnings     520 698
  Net fixed assets 3,190 3,630        
  Total assets $5,730 $6,070     Total liab. & equity $5,730 $6,070

What is the days’ sales in receivables? (use 2009 values)

41.0

33.7

24.9

47.5

80.4

15

A firm has sales of $1,360, net income of $227, net fixed assets of $469, and current assets of $329. The firm has $95 in inventory. What is the common-size statement value of inventory?

41.5 percent

11.9 percent

20.3 percent

7.0 percent

28.9 percent

16.

The Purple Martin has annual sales of $4,800, total debt of $1,360, total equity of $2,200, and a profit margin of 5 percent. What is the return on assets?

10.91 percent

6.74 percent

17.65 percent

8.72 percent

5.00 percent

 

17.

Al’s Sport Store has sales of $2,740, costs of goods sold of $2,100, inventory of $533, and accounts receivable of $444. How many days, on average, does it take the firm to sell its inventory assuming that all sales are on credit?

71.0

92.6

140.0

130.0

91.4

18

Jessica’s Boutique has cash of $47, accounts receivable of $70, accounts payable of $190, and inventory of $160. What is the value of the quick ratio?

2.07

1.46

.37

.62

.84

19.

One of the primary weaknesses of many financial planning models is that they:

ignore the size, risk, and timing of cash flows.

are iterative in nature.

ignore the goals and objectives of senior management.

rely too much on financial relationships and too little on accounting relationships.

ignore cash payouts to stockholders.

20

If a firm bases its growth projection on the rate of sustainable growth, shows positive net income, and has a dividend payout ratio of 30 percent, then the:

number of common shares outstanding will increase at the same rate of growth.

debt-equity ratio will remain constant while retained earnings increase.

debt-equity ratio will have to increase.

fixed assets will have to increase at the same rate, even if the firm is currently operating at only 78 percent of capacity.

fixed assets, the debt-equity ratio, and number of common shares outstanding will all increase.

 

21

Marcie’s Mercantile wants to maintain its current dividend policy, which is a payout ratio of 35 percent. The firm does not want to increase its equity financing but is willing to maintain its current debt-equity ratio. Given these requirements, the maximum rate at which Marcie’s can grow is equal to:

65 percent of the sustainable rate of growth.

65 percent of the internal rate of growth.

35 percent of the internal rate of growth.

the internal rate of growth.

the sustainable rate of growth.

 

22

f the Hunter Corp. has an ROE of 11 and a payout ratio of 19 percent, what is its sustainable growth rate? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

 

  Sustainable growth rate %

 

23

 

 

24.   The operating cycle can be decreased by:

increasing the accounts payable turnover rate.

discontinuing the discount given for early payment of an accounts receivable.

paying accounts payable faster.

collecting accounts receivable faster.

decreasing the inventory turnover rate.

 

25

The length of time between the payment for inventory and the collection of cash from receivables is called the:

inventory period.

operating cycle.

accounts receivable period.

cash cycle.

accounts payable period.

26.

Consider the following financial statement information for the Rivers Corporation:

 

  Item Beginning         Ending  
  Inventory $ 11,000         $ 12,000  
  Accounts receivable   6,000           6,300  
  Accounts payable   8,200           8,600  
     Net sales       $ 90,000        
     Cost of goods sold         70,000        

 

Calculate the operating and cash cycles. (Use 365 days a year. Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

 

   
  Operating cycle days
  Cash cycle days

 

 

27.

Here are the most recent balance sheets for Country Kettles, Inc. Excluding accumulated depreciation, determine whether each item is a source or a use of cash, and the amount. (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to the nearest whole number, e.g., 32. Input all amounts as positive values):

 

COUNTRY KETTLES, INC.
Balance Sheet
December 31, 2016
  2015   2016  
  Assets            
  Cash $ 31,400   $ 30,590  
  Accounts receivable   70,900     74,080  
  Inventories   61,800     64,125  
  Property, plant, and equipment   157,000     167,800  
    Less: Accumulated depreciation   (46,720 )   (50,900 )
 


 


 
  Total assets $ 274,380   $ 285,695  
 




 




 
  Liabilities and Equity            
  Accounts payable $ 45,900   $ 48,090  
  Accrued expenses   7,280     6,420  
  Long-term debt   26,600     29,500  
  Common stock   26,000     31,000  
  Accumulated retained earnings   168,600     170,685  
 


 


 
  Total liabilities and equity $ 274,380   $ 285,695  
 




 




 

 

  Item Source/Use   Amount  
  Cash $  
  Accounts receivable $  
  Inventories $  
  Property, plant, and equipment $  
  Accounts payable $  
  Accrued expenses $  
  Long-term debt $  
  Common stock $  
  Accumulated retained earnings $

 

28.

The rate at which a stock’s price is expected to appreciate (or depreciate) is called the _____ yield.

earnings

dividend

current

total

capital gains

 

29.

Last year, a bond yielded a nominal return of 7.37 percent while inflation averaged 3.26 percent. What was the real rate of return?

3.86%

3.2 7%

3.98%

3.71%

3.42%

30.

A corporate bond is currently quoted at 101.633. What is the market price of a bond with a $1,000 face value?

$1,102.77

$1,000.28

$1,002.77

$1,276.70

$1,016.33

31.

Stu wants to earn a real return of 3.4 percent on any bond he acquires. The inflation rate is 2.8 percent. He has determined that a particular bond he is considering should have an interest rate risk premium of .27 percent, a liquidity premium of .08 percent, and a taxability premium of 1.69 percent. What nominal rate of return is Stu demanding from this particular bond?

7.38%

8.74%

8.24%

8.40%

7.19%

32.

 

Miller Manufacturing has a target debt–equity ratio of .50. Its cost of equity is 15 percent, and its cost of debt is 6 percent. If the tax rate is 34 percent, what is the company’s WACC? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

 

  WACC %

 

33.

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33.

 

 

 

Filer Manufacturing has 9.2 million shares of common stock outstanding. The current share price is $62, and the book value per share is $4. The company also has two bond issues outstanding. The first bond issue has a face value of $71.8 million and a coupon rate of 7.9 percent and sells for 107.4 percent of par. The second issue has a face value of $61.8 million and a coupon rate of 8.4 percent and sells for 110.7 percent of par. The first issue matures in 8 years, the second in 27 years.
 
Suppose the company’s stock has a beta of 1.2. The risk-free rate is 4 percent, and the market risk premium is 7.9 percent. Assume that the overall cost of debt is the weighted average implied by the two outstanding debt issues. Both bonds make semiannual payments. The tax rate is 35 percent. What is the company’s WACC? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

 

  WACC

 

 

34.

When estimating the cost of equity using the DDM, which one of these is most apt to add error to this estimate?

beta

next year’s dividend

firm’s tax rate

dividend growth rate

current stock price

35

A firm’s WACC can be correctly used to discount the expected cash flows of a new project when that project:

will be financed solely with new debt and internal equity.

will be financed solely with internal equity.

has the same level of risk as the firm’s current operations.

will be financed with the same proportions of debt and equity as those currently used by the overall firm.

will be managed by the firm’s current managers.

36.

The weighted average cost of capital for a firm is the:

discount rate which the firm should apply to all of the projects it undertakes.

rate the firm should expect to pay on its next bond issue.

maximum rate which the firm should require on any projects it undertakes.

overall rate which the firm must earn on its existing assets to maintain its value.

rate of return that the firm’s preferred stockholders should expect to earn over the long term.

37.

Jamestown Ltd. currently produces boat sails and is considering expanding its operations to include awnings. The expansion would require the use of land the firm purchased three years ago at a cost of $142,000 that is currently valued at $137,500. The expansion could use some equipment that is currently sitting idle if $6,700 of modifications were made to it. The equipment originally cost $139,500 six years ago, has a current book value of $24,700, and a current market value of $39,000. Other capital purchases costing $780,000 will also be required. What is the amount of the initial cash flow for this expansion project?

$962,300

$963,200

$953,400

$948,900

$927,800

 

38

An independent investment is acceptable if the profitability index (PI) of the investment is:

less than one.

less than the internal rate of return.

greater than the internal rate of return.

greater than a pre-specified rate of return.

greater than one.

39.

Samson’s purchased a lot four years ago at a cost of $398,000. At that time, the firm spent $289,000 to build a small retail outlet on the site. The most recent appraisal on the property placed a value of $629,000 on the property and building. Samson’s now wants to tear down the original structure and build a new strip mall on the site at an estimated cost of $2.3 million. What amount should be used as the initial cash flow for new project?

$2,987,000

$2,929,000

$2,058,000

$2,300,000

$2,242,000

40

Foamsoft sells customized boat shoes. Currently, it sells 16,850 pairs of shoes annually at an average price of $79 a pair. It is considering adding a lower-priced line of shoes which sell for $49 a pair. Foamsoft estimates it can sell 5,000 pairs of the lower-priced shoes but will sell 1,250 less pairs of the higher-priced shoes by doing so. What is the estimated value of the erosion cost that should be charged to the lower-priced shoe project?

$146,250

$98,750

$138,750

$52,000

$123,240

41

Marshall’s purchased a corner lot five years ago at a cost of $498,000 and then spent $63,500 on grading and drainage so the lot could be used for storing outdoor inventory. The lot was recently appraised at $610,000. The company now wants to build a new retail store on the site. The building cost is estimated at $1.1 million. What amount should be used as the initial cash flow for this building project?

$1,710,000

$1,498,000

$1,208,635

$1,661,500

$1,100,000

42.

What is the net present value of a project with an initial cost of $36,900 and cash inflows of $13,400, $21,600, and $10,000 for Years 1 to 3, respectively? The discount rate is 13 percent.

$204.36

$797.22

−$1,195.12

−$1,350.49

−$287.22

 

43.

A project costing $6,200 initially should produce cash inflows of $2,860 a year for three years. After the three years, the project will be shut down and will be sold at the end of Year 4 for an estimated net cash amount of $3,300. What is the net present value of this project if the required rate of return is 11.3 percent?

$3,011.40

$1,980.02

$2,903.19

$935.56

$2,474.76

44.

 

Flatte Restaurant is considering the purchase of a $10,400 soufflé maker. The soufflé maker has an economic life of five years and will be fully depreciated by the straight-line method. The machine will produce 2,200 soufflés per year, with each costing $2.60 to make and priced at $5.45. Assume that the discount rate is 16 percent and the tax rate is 34 percent.

 

What is the NPV of the project? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

 

  NPV $

 

Should the company make the purchase?
 
Yes
No

 

 

45.

What is the net present value of a project that has an initial cash outflow of $7,670 and cash inflows of $1,280 in Year 1, $6,980 in Year 3, and $2,750 in Year 4? The discount rate is 12.5 percent.

$68.20

$371.02

$86.87

$249.65

$270.16

 

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Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

Discussion: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

It is estimated that more than 6% of the U.S. population will experience posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in their lifetime (National Center for PTSD, 2010). This debilitating disorder often interferes with an individual’s ability to function in daily life. Common symptoms of anxiousness and depression frequently lead to substance abuse issues and even physical ailments. For this Discussion, as you examine the Thompson Family Case Study in this week’s Learning Resources, consider how you might assess and treat clients presenting with PTSD.

· Review this week’s Learning Resources and reflect on the insights they provide.

· View the media Academic Year in Residence: Thompson Family Case Study, and assess the client in the case study.

· For guidance on assessing the client, refer to pages 137–142 of the Wheeler text in this week’s Learning Resources.

Note: To complete this Discussion, you must assess the client, but you are not required to submit a formal Comprehensive Client Assessment.

Post an explanation of your observations of the client in Thompson Family Case Study, including behaviors that align to the PTSD criteria in DSM-5. Then, explain therapeutic approaches you might use with this client, including psychotropic medications if appropriate. Finally, explain expected outcomes for the client based on these therapeutic approaches. Support your approach with evidence-based literature.

N:B REMEMBER TO INCLUDE THE INTRODUCTION, CONCLUSION AND REFERENCES LESS THAN 7 YEARS OLD

Required Readings

Wheeler, K. (Ed.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.

  • Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and      Dissociation” (pp. 469–508)

American Psychiatric Association. (2013). Diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.

Required Media

Laureate Education (Producer). (2012a). Academic year in residence: Thompson family case study [Multimedia file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.

Ochberg, F. (2012). Psychotherapy for chronic PTSD [Video file]. Mill Valley, CA: Psychotherapy.net.

40 MUTIPLE CHOICE WORDS

Question 1 

  1. Connie, the president of a company that makes paper,      has a new interest in the environment. She recently went to a seminar on      environmental dangers and has decided to take steps to clean things up.      She started at home and was also committed to change things at work.      Connie had to face the fact that her company has been cheating and is not      in compliance with applicable environmental regulations due to dumping in      a nearby river. Her company has never been cited, however, because it employs      a very large number of people in the community, including the mayor’s wife      and the chief-of-police’s brother.

    On her mission to clean things up, Connie has decided to go even further      than the law requires and install the very latest environmental protections.      When she announced her plan, the chair of the company’s board of      directors, Brooke, had a meeting with Connie. Brooke told Connie to      analyze the situation carefully because the cost of the additional      equipment would mean no dividend to shareholders and no raise for      employees. Furthermore, Brooke told Connie that installing all of the new      equipment would result in higher prices for the company’s paper products      and could bankrupt the company because of foreign competition. Brooke      hinted that Connie could be fired if she persisted. Brooke suggested that      Connie just be concerned with a minimal standard of ethics. Which of the      following would be a stakeholder in the company?

 

The community only

 

The shareholders only

 

Future generations only

 

The community and shareholders   only

 

The community, shareholders, and   future generations

2 points

Question 2 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the liability      in tort of employers for the actions of employees and independent      contractors?

 

Employers are generally liable in   tort for the actions of their employees, while they are generally not liable   for the actions of independent contractors.

 

Employers are generally liable in   tort for the actions of independent contractors, while they are generally not   liable for the actions of employees.

 

Employers are not generally liable   in tort for the actions of independent contractors or for the actions of   employees.

 

Employers are generally liable in   tort for the actions of independent contractors and also for the actions of   employees.

 

Employers are generally liable in   tort for the actions of independent contractors and the actions of employees,   but only if the employer has agreed to be liable in a written contract with   the employee or independent contractor.

2 points

Question 3 

  1. Which of the following was the result on appeal in the      case of Webster v. Blue Ship Tea Room Inc.—the case in which the      plaintiff sued after getting a bone caught in her throat while eating clam      chowder?

 

That the plaintiff could recover   based upon the implied warranty of merchantability

 

That the plaintiff could recover   based upon the implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose

 

That the plaintiff could recover   based on an express warranty

 

That the plaintiff could not   recover because she waited too long in which to sue and also because she was   not the direct purchaser of the fish

 

That the plaintiff could not   recover for reasons including that the bone should not have been unexpected

2 points

Question 4 

  1. A partnership in which the partners divide      profits and management responsibilities and share unlimited personal      liability for the partnership’s debt is called a __________.

 

general partnership

 

limited partnership

 

limited liability partnership

 

corporation

 

limited liability company

2 points

Question 5 

  1. A person who contracts with another to do something for      him or her but who is not controlled by the other nor subject to the      other’s right to control with respect to his or her physical conduct in      the performance of the undertaking is a(n) __________.

 

employee

 

independent contractor

 

authorized contractor

 

task-specific contractor

 

partial contractor

2 points

Question 6 

  1. Which of the following occurs when a party to a      contract transfers his or her rights to a contract to a third party?

 

Assignment

 

Referral

 

Disgorgement

 

Privity

 

Transfer

2 points

Question 7 

  1. Penny is investigating what she needs to do to legally      to open a dog grooming business in her city. Which of the following would      govern the business?

 

State statutes

 

City ordinances

 

Model laws

 

State statutes, city ordinances,   and model laws

 

State statutes and city   ordinances, but not model laws

2 points

Question 8 

  1. Sally agrees to mow Paul’s yard for $300 for the      summer. Paul wishes to assign the contract to his grandmother. Sally      objects because Paul’s yard is very small while the grandmother’s yard is      over an acre. Which of the following is the correct legal outcome for the dispute      between Sally and Paul?

 

Sally will win because Paul’s   attempted assignment would increase the duties to which she agreed.

 

Sally will win because all   assignments are invalid without the obligor’s consent.

 

Sally will win unless Paul paid   her the $300 in advance in which case Paul will win.

 

Paul will win because he may   validly assign the contract without Sally’s consent.

 

Paul will win so long as he tells   Sally about the assignment prior to the time she begins any performance   whatsoever.

2 points

Question 9 

  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a sole proprietorship?

 

A sole proprietorship requires few   legal formalities.

 

A sole proprietor has complete   control of the management of the business.

 

The sole proprietor keeps all the   profits from the business.

 

Profits are taxed as the personal   income of the sole proprietor.

 

A sole proprietor is not   personally liable for obligations of the business.

2 points

Question 10 

  1. If the plaintiff wants a court order that requires the      defendant to fulfill the terms of the contract, the plaintiff is seeking      __________.

 

specific performance

 

directive

 

instructional edict

 

demand

 

injunction

2 points

Question 11 

  1. Gretchen offers $100 to anyone who can return her lost      dog, Sparky. Haley returns the dog and requests the money. Gretchen says      that there is no binding contract. Which of the following is TRUE      regarding Gretchen’s statement?

 

Gretchen is incorrect because   there is a binding bilateral contract.

 

Gretchen is incorrect because   there is a binding unilateral contract that Haley accepted by performing.

 

Gretchen is correct because there   is no binding bilateral contract.

 

Gretchen is correct because there   is no binding unilateral contract.

 

Gretchen is correct because Haley   acted incorrectly by her manner of attempted acceptance.

2 points

Question 12 

  1. Stewart, the owner of ABC Construction, agreed with      Joan, the owner of XYZ Hotel, that he would complete renovations on her      upscale hotel on the beach in Florida by October 1. The amount due to      Stewart under the contract was $250,000. The contract contained a clause      by which Stewart would pay Joan $50,000 for each day he was late on      completing the project. Unfortunately, a strong earthquake shook the area,      and while the earthquake did not damage the hotel itself, Stewart      encountered significant difficulty in getting supplies due to the high      demand for building material following the earthquake. Because he believed      that traveling, himself, to other states to obtain supplies would be      prohibitively expensive, he delayed the project for two weeks while      waiting for local stores to have sufficient supplies available. Stewart      finished renovations six days late. Joan told Stewart that she owed him      nothing but that he owed her $50,000. Stewart told Joan that he was suing      for the entire $250,000 because it was not his fault the earthquake      delayed matters. Which of the following is the appropriate term for the      agreement that Stewart would pay Joan $50,000 for each day he was late in      completion?

 

Mitigated damages term

 

Liquidated damages clause

 

Stipulated damages

 

Acknowledged damages clause

 

Approved and acknowledged damages   clause

2 points

Question 13 

  1. Which of the following are the two primary kinds of      performance?

 

Partial and significant

 

Partial and complete

 

Partial and substantial

 

Complete and substantial

 

Complete and significant

2 points

Question 14 

  1. The “public disclosure” test is also known as      the __________ test.

 

television

 

Powell

 

self-conscious

 

golden

 

primary

2 points

Question 15 

  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a limited      liability partnership?

 

A limited liability partnership is   considered a separate legal entity.

 

Limited liability partnerships are   fairly new.

 

The business name must include   “Limited Liability Partnership” or an abbreviation in the name.

 

The parties must file a form with   the secretary of the state to create a limited liability partnership.

 

Each partner pays taxes on his or   her share of the income of the business.

2 points

Question 16 

  1. Positive abstractions that capture our sense of what is      good or desirable are __________.

 

ethical ideas

 

values

 

conscience demands

 

desirable principles

 

action goals

2 points

Question 17 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the      mirror-image rule and the UCC?

 

The mirror-image rule applies   under the UCC the same as it is applies under common law.

 

The mirror-image rule that applies   under common law does not apply under the UCC.

 

The mirror-image rule that applies   under the common law applies under the UCC only if a lease is involved.

 

The mirror-image rule that applies   under the common law applies under the UCC only if a sale of goods is   involved.

 

The mirror-image rule under the   UCC does not apply to common law.

2 points

Question 18 

  1. Which of the following provides that a portion of a      copyrighted work may be reproduced for purposes of criticism, comment,      news reporting, teaching, scholarships, and research?

 

The limited-use doctrine

 

The copyright-use doctrine

 

The fair-use doctrine

 

The trade-use doctrine

 

None of these because there is no   such provision

2 points

Question 19 

  1. __________ are investor-owners of a corporation.

 

Profit owners

 

Profit and loss owners

 

Approved investors

 

Limited partners

 

Shareholders

2 points

Question 20 

  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding trade-secret      protection?

 

Competitors may not legally   discover trade secrets by doing reverse engineering.

 

Competitors may discover secrets   by going on public tours of plants and observing the use of the trade secret.

 

Lawful discovery of a trade secret   means there is no longer a trade secret to be protected.

 

An invention may be considered a   trade secret.

 

A design may be considered a trade   secret.

2 points

Question 21 

  1. Mistakes in contracts may be classified as __________.

 

void and voidable

 

enforceable and voidable

 

unilateral and void

 

mutual and enforceable

 

unilateral and mutual

2 points

Question 22 

  1. Kitty, who had a love of baking, decided to open her      own bakery. She decided that she did not need and did not want to pay for      a lawyer to advise her on different forms of ownership. Unfortunately,      Kitty had not paid attention in business law class. She proceeded, with      little thought, to simply open her business called Kitty’s Baking. Bobby      came in to order some cookies for his girlfriend, Bitsy, who was allergic      to peanuts. Bobby told Kitty that he needed some cookies for Bitsy, but he      explained that Bitsy had allergies to peanuts. Kitty told him not to worry      because she would make up a special batch just for him. Kitty had hired      some assistants because she was so busy. She told an assistant, Cathy, to      make up several batches of cookies for different customers, including      Bobby, and to leave out the peanuts in Bobby’s order. Cathy, however,      forgot the instruction and proceeded to make Bobby’s cookies with crushed      peanuts. Bobby picked up the cookies and gave one to Bitsy in the car      while they were on the way to the movie in Bobby’s new car. Bitsy became      violently ill, vomited in Bobby’s car, and had to have her stomach pumped.      Bobby and Bitsy sought recovery from Kitty who told them that Bitsy’s      doctor bill and Bobby’s car-cleaning bill were business debts, that the      business was new and not making any money at the moment, and that she had      no personal liability. Following the incident involving Bobby and Bitsy,      Kitty discussed with her parents her problems with the bakery. Kitty’s      parents would like to invest in her business and share in any profits, but      they do not want to share in the management responsibilities. What type of      business did Kitty initially set up?

 

A limited liability company

 

A sole proprietorship

 

An individual proprietorship

 

A general company

 

An S corporation

2 points

Question 23 

  1. The __________ is the supreme law of the land.

 

United States Constitution

 

Declaration of Independence

 

United States Code

 

model law

 

Uniform Commercial Code

2 points

Question 24 

  1. Which of the following are types of warranties?

 

Express and unknown

 

Implied and understood

 

Acknowledged and express

 

Express, implied, and acknowledged

 

Express and implied, but not   acknowledged

2 points

Question 25 

  1. A breaching party’s right to provide conforming goods      when nonconforming goods were initially delivered is known as __________.

 

substantial impairment

 

usage of trade

 

cure

 

perfect tender rule

 

course of dealing

2 points

Question 26 

  1. Heather innocently misrepresented the status of a puppy      as being a full-blooded Pomeranian when actually it was a mixed breed.      Brad had contracted to purchase the dog, but the problem was discovered      prior to his paying for the dog and picking it up. Nevertheless, Brad was      very angry and felt that Heather should have been more careful. He said      that he planned to rescind the contract and also sue her for damages to      punish her and deter others from behaving similarly. Which of the      following is true regarding the remedies available to Brad?

 

Because Heather violated the   contract to provide a full-blooded Pomeranian, Brad is entitled to rescind   the contract and also to the damages he seeks.

 

Because Heather violated the   contract to provide a full-blooded Pomeranian, Brad is entitled to rescind   the contract, but he is not entitled to the damages he seeks.

 

Because Heather is not guilty of   any wrongdoing, Brad is entitled to no remedy, and Heather has an additional   30 days in order to honor the contract.

 

Because Heather is not guilty of   any wrongdoing, Brad is entitled to no remedy, and Heather has an additional   60 days in order to honor the contract.

 

Because Heather is not guilty of   any wrongdoing, Brad is entitled to no remedy, and Heather has an additional   90 days in order to honor the contract.

2 points

Question 27 

  1. Monique was licensed to train massage therapists. A new      federal agency, the Aesthetic and Massage Commission, was committed to      enforcing the statute that licensed massage therapists must refrain from      “any act or conduct indicating bad faith, incompetence, dishonesty,      or improper dealing.” Monique, while driving home late one night from      a party, was stopped by the police and arrested for driving under the      influence of alcohol. She pled guilty to the offense. When the Aesthetic      and Massage Commission discovered the offense, the officials of the agency      met, decided that Monique might drink on the job, and concluded that she      might pose a danger to students. Accordingly, her license to teach massage      therapy was revoked. Monique threatened to sue to retain her license and      was told by the agency head that she had no right to appeal to court      because of the nature of the Aesthetic and Massage Commission, and that,      in any event, action by an agency is always upheld. Which of the following      is TRUE regarding the statement of the agency that Monique had no right to      appeal to court?

 

The agency representative was   wrong, and if Monique cannot resolve the issue within the agency, she may   appeal to court for judicial review.

 

Because the agency was set up to   protect the safety of the public, the agency representative is correct unless   Monique can establish that she entered into a separate contractual   arrangement with the agency when she was hired that gave her the right to   appeal decisions to court.

 

Further information is needed   regarding whether the agency was an executive agency or an independent agency   because while actions of an independent agency may be appealed to court,   actions of an executive agency may not be appealed to court.

 

Further information is needed   regarding whether the agency was an executive agency or an independent agency   because while actions of an executive agency may be appealed to court,   actions of an independent agency may not be appealed to court.

 

Because the agency was set up to   protect the safety of the public, the agency representative is correct, and   Monique has no right to a court action and no right to enter into a   contractual agreement with the agency regarding appeal rights.

2 points

Question 28 

  1. Which of the following refers to the right of an      offeror to revoke an offer?

 

The offeror is the   “originator of his offer.”

 

The offeror is the “master of   his offer.”

 

The offeror is the “proponent   of his offer.”

 

The offeror is the “adjudicator   of his offer.”

 

The offeror is the “arbiter   of his offer.”

2 points

Question 29 

  1. What was the result in the case in the textbook of Lucy      v. Zehmer involving whether allegations of joking involving the sale      of land prevented the formation of a contract?

 

The court ruled that the contract   would not be enforced because one of the parties was subjectively joking.

 

The court ruled that the contract   would not be enforced because one of the parties was joking, and a reasonable   person should have known that.

 

The court ruled that the contract   would not be enforced because the parties had been drinking although they   were not intoxicated.

 

The court ruled that the agreement   would be enforced because of the outward manifestations of agreement.

 

The court ruled that the contract   would be enforced because of what the parties verbally said regardless of   whether an objective person would have thought joking was involved.

2 points

Question 30 

  1. Jim, who is a bit eccentric, says that he is fed up      with the way a certain employer in his town treats employees and that he      is going to sue that employer in an effort to improve matters. Jim also      says that he is going to start his case at the appellate court level,      skipping over all of those “lesser” judges. Jim says that those      justices will surely hear him out and that he will also seek a jury.      Although he is not a lawyer, Jim believes that the offenses of the      employer are so severe that the justices will appreciate his attempt to      make things better for the employees involved. Will Jim get a jury at the      appellate court level?

 

Only if the opposing party agrees

 

In some states but not in others

 

Only if he is in federal court

 

Only if he is in state court

 

No

2 points

Question 31 

  1. Which of the following is a person who has a duty to      act primarily for another person’s benefit?

 

Principal

 

Employer

 

Fiduciary

 

Trustor

 

Benefitor

2 points

Question 32 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding whether the      shape of a product or package may be a trademark?

 

The shape of a product may be a   trademark if it is nonfunctional, but the shape of a package may not be the   subject of a trademark.

 

The shape of a product may be the   subject of a trademark if it is functional, but the shape of the package may   not be the subject of a trademark.

 

The shape of a product or package   may be a trademark if it is functional.

 

The shape of a product or the   shape of a package may be a trademark if it is nonfunctional.

 

The shape of a package may be a   trademark if it is nonfunctional, but the shape of a product may not be the   subject or a trademark.

2 points

Question 33 

  1. Which of the following BEST determines the obligations      of sellers/lessors and buyers/lessees?

 

Terms the parties outline in   agreements

 

Custom

 

Rules outlined by the UCC

 

Terms the parties outline in   agreements, custom, and rules outlined by the UCC

 

Terms the parties outline in   agreements and custom, but not rules outlined by the UCC

2 points

Question 34 

  1. In a limited partnership, which of the following have      no part in the management of the business?

 

General partners

 

Limited partners

 

Special partners

 

General partners, limited partners,   and special partners

 

General and special partners but   not limited partners

2 points

Question 35 

  1. Patricia, the president of a company that makes      batteries, has a new interest in the environment. She recently went to a      seminar on environmental dangers and has decided to take steps to clean      things up. She started at home and was also committed to change things at      work. Patricia had to face the fact that her company has been cheating and      is not in compliance with applicable environmental regulations due to      dumping in a nearby river. Her company has never been cited, however,      because it employs a very large number of people in the community,      including the mayor’s wife and the chief-of-police’s brother.

    On her mission to clean things up, Patricia has decided to go even further      than the law requires and install the very latest environmental      protections. When she announced her plan, the chair of the company’s board      of directors, Cindy, had a meeting with Patricia. Cindy told Patricia to      analyze the situation carefully because the cost of the additional      equipment would mean no dividend to shareholders and no raise for      employees. Furthermore, Cindy told Patricia that installing all of the new      equipment would result in higher prices for the company’s batteries and      could bankrupt the company because of foreign competition. Cindy hinted      that Patricia could be fired if she persisted. Cindy suggested that      Patricia just be concerned with a minimal standard of ethics. Which of the      following is the minimal standard that a business must meet in a      consideration of business ethics?

 

Decisions must be legal.

 

Decisions must meet the criteria   of a follower of the WPH Framework for Business Ethics.

 

Decisions must meet the   requirements of the most important stakeholders.

 

Decisions must receive a majority   vote of acceptance by employees.

 

Both that decisions must be legal   and that decisions receive a majority vote of acceptance by employees.

2 points

Question 36 

  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the agency      relationship?

 

It is a consensual relationship.

 

It may be formed by formal written   contracts.

 

It may usually be formed by   informal oral agreements.

 

It exists when the principal takes   action to ask another individual to act on behalf of the principal.

 

People must be trained in the   field involved in order to qualify as agents.

2 points

Question 37 

  1. Barry, an auctioneer, was holding an auction on a      Saturday morning. At the beginning of the auction, Barry announced that      the auction was being held without reserve. At the auction, Mary saw a      great deal on a used table. She bid $20 on it. No one else bid anything.      Barry announced that $20 was clearly insufficient for the table, that it      was worth much more than that, and that he was taking it out of the      auction. Mary sued Barry, attempting to obtain possession of the table.      What is the likely result in the lawsuit brought by Mary against Barry for      the table?

 

Barry will win because Mary was   simply making an offer that he was free to decline.

 

Barry will win because the price   was clearly insufficient for the table.

 

Barry will win because no   acceptance occurred.

 

Mary will win because the auction   was without reserve, and Barry had agreed to accept the highest bid.

 

Barry will win because he did not   inform attendees in writing that the auction was without reserve.

2 points

Question 38 

  1. Which of the following articles of the Uniform      Commercial Code (UCC) governs sales contracts?

 

2

 

2(A)

 

4

 

4(A)

 

6

2 points

Question 39 

  1. A __________ is a FALSE representation of a material      fact that is consciously false and intended to mislead the other party.

 

negligent misrepresentation

 

fraudulent misrepresentation

 

scienter misrepresentation

 

negligent misrepresentation,   fraudulent misrepresentation, and a scienter
misrepresentation

 

negligent or fraudulent   misrepresentation, but not a scienter misrepresentation

2 points

Question 40 

  1. Which of the following do NOT meet the UCC definition      of a good?

 

Real estate

 

Corporate stocks

 

Copyrights

 

Neither real estate, corporate   stocks, nor copyrights meet the definition of goods

 

Real estate and corporate stocks   do not, but copyrights do meet the definition of good

Assign 2-WK 7(A)

 Practicum Journal: Checkpoint for Certification Plan

Psychiatric/mental health nurse practitioners currently have only one choice for certification, which is through the American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC). The ANCC offers the “psychiatric/mental-health nurse practitioner (across the lifespan)” board certification (PMHNP-BC). In many states, board certification is needed as a prerequisite to being granted an NP license. Even if board certification is not a requirement for state licensure, it may be a requirement to receive privileges in various hospitals and other health care facilities. It may also be required by malpractice insurance providers prior to issuing coverage to NPs.

Learning Objectives

Students will:

Evaluate progress on certification plans

Report your progress on the Certification Plan you completed in Week 4 (SEE ATTACHED WEEK 4 CERTIFICATION PLAN DONE)

 Assignment 

Write a 2- to 3-page paper in which you do the following:

1) What have you done to prepare for your certification?

2) Have you completed the scheduled tasks assigned on your timeline as you

noted in week 4 ? If not, what are your plans to stay on schedule?(SEE

ATTACHED WEEK 4 CERTIFICATION PLAN DONE)

 

INSTRUCTION

NB: for this Assignment (Journal Entries)

· Include references  immediately following  the content.

· Use APA style for your journal entry and references less than 5 years old.

. PLEASE INCLUDE INTRODUCTION, CONCLUSION AND REFERENCES LESS

THAN 5 YEARS OLD

 

Learning Resources

Required Readings

Barton Associates. (2017). Nurse practitioner scope of practice laws. Retrieved from https://www.bartonassociates.com/locum-tenens-resources/nurse-practitioner-scope-of-practice-laws/

American Psychiatric Association. (2016). Practice guidelines for the psychiatric evaluation of adults. Retrieved from http://psychiatryonline.org/doi/pdf/10.1176/appi.books.9780890426760

W4P1

Resources: Stock Valuation Template

Calculate the following stock valuation problems:

  • Company X is paying an annual dividend of $1.35 and has decided to pay the same amount forever. How much should you pay for the stock, if you want to earn an annual rate of return of 9.5% on this investment?
  • You want to purchase common stock of Company X and hold it for 7 years. The company just announced they will be paying an annual cash dividend of $6.00 per share for the next 9 years. How much should you pay for the stock, if you will be able to sell the stock for $28 at the end of seven years and you want to earn an annual rate of return of 11% on this investment?

Select one of the companies studied by one of the group members in Week 3.

Search the Internet for financial information about the company selected.

Evaluate the following in a 525-word response:

  • Characteristics of common and preferred stock.
  • How stock markets work.
  • The connection between the value of shares and dividends.
  • Mention the ticker symbol of the company studied, the current price of the stock, and its financial history.
  • Indicate if you would recommend investing in this stock and why. Explain.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

  • attachment

    FIN419_r6_wk4_Stock_Valuation_Template.xlsx

THE BIRDIE GOLF’s And HYBRID GOLF MERGER

THE BIRDIE GOLF’s and HYBRID GOLF MERGER

Birdie Golf, Inc., has been in merger talks with Hybrid Golf Company for the past six months. After several rounds of negotiations, the offer under discussion is a cash offer of $352 million for Hybrid Golf. Both companies have niche markets in the golf club industry, and the companies believe a merger will result in significant synergies due to economies of scale in manufacturing and marketing, as well as significant savings in general and administrative expenses. Bryce Bichon, the financial officer for Birdie, has been instrumental in the merger negotiations. Bryce has prepared the following pro forma financial statements for Hybrid Golf assuming the merger takes place.

The financial statements include all synergistic benefits from the merger:

2012… 2013… 2014… 2015… 2016

Sales 512,000,000 576,000,000 640,000,000 720,000,000 800,000,000

Production costs 359,200,000 403,200,000 448,000,000 505,600,000 564,000,000

Depreciation 48,000,000 51,200,000 52,800,000 53,120,000 53,600,000

Other expenses 51,200,000 57,600,000 64,000,000 72,320,000 77,600,000

EBIT 53,600,000 64,000,000 75,200,000 88,960,000 104,800,000

I per share? 4. What is the highest exchange ratio Birdie would be willing to pay and still undertake the merger?

 

Case Study: Mrs. J

Evaluate the Health History and Medical Information for Mrs. J., presented below.

Based on this information, formulate a conclusion based on your evaluation, and complete the Critical Thinking Essay assignment, as instructed below.

Health History and Medical Information

Health History

Mrs. J. is a 63-year-old married woman who has a history of hypertension, chronic heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Despite requiring 2L of oxygen/nasal cannula at home during activity, she continues to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day and has done so for 40 years. Three days ago, she had sudden onset of flu-like symptoms including fever, productive cough, nausea, and malaise. Over the past 3 days, she has been unable to perform ADLs and has required assistance in walking short distances. She has not taken her antihypertensive medications or medications to control her heart failure for 3 days. Today, she has been admitted to the hospital ICU with acute decompensated heart failure and acute exacerbation of COPD.

Subjective Data

  1. Is very anxious and asks whether she is going to die.
  2. Denies pain but says she feels like she cannot get enough air.
  3. Says her heart feels like it is “running away.”
  4. Reports that she is exhausted and cannot eat or drink by herself.

Objective Data

  1. Height 175 cm; Weight 95.5kg.
  2. Vital signs: T 37.6C, HR 118 and irregular, RR 34, BP 90/58.
  3. Cardiovascular: Distant S1, S2, S3 present; PMI at sixth ICS and faint: all peripheral pulses are 1+; bilateral jugular vein distention; initial cardiac monitoring indicates a ventricular rate of 132 and atrial fibrillation.
  4. Respiratory: Pulmonary crackles; decreased breath sounds right lower lobe; coughing frothy blood-tinged sputum; SpO2 82%.
  5. Gastrointestinal: BS present: hepatomegaly 4cm below costal margin.

Intervention

The following medications administered through drug therapy control her symptoms:

  1. IV furosemide (Lasix)
  2. Enalapril (Vasotec)
  3. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
  4. IV morphine sulphate (Morphine)
  5. Inhaled short-acting bronchodilator (ProAir HFA)
  6. Inhaled corticosteroid (Flovent HFA)
  7. Oxygen delivered at 2L/ NC

Critical Thinking Essay

In 750-1,000 words, critically evaluate Mrs. J.’s situation. Include the following:

  1. Describe the clinical manifestations present in Mrs. J.
  2. Discuss whether the nursing interventions at the time of her admissions were appropriate for Mrs. J. and explain the rationale for each of the medications listed.
  3. Describe four cardiovascular conditions that may lead to heart failure and what can be done in the form of medical/nursing interventions to prevent the development of heart failure in each condition.
  4. Taking into consideration the fact that most mature adults take at least six prescription medications, discuss four nursing interventions that can help prevent problems caused by multiple drug interactions in older patients. Provide a rationale for each of the interventions you recommend.
  5. Provide a health promotion and restoration teaching plan for Mrs. J., including multidisciplinary resources for rehabilitation and any modifications that may be needed. Explain how the rehabilitation resources and modifications will assist the patients’ transition to independence.
  6. Describe a method for providing education for Mrs. J. regarding medications that need to be maintained to prevent future hospital admission. Provide rationale.
  7. Outline COPD triggers that can increase exacerbation frequency, resulting in return visits. Considering Mrs. J.’s current and long-term tobacco use, discuss what options for smoking cessation should be offered.

You are required to cite to a minimum of two sources to complete this assignment. Sources must be published within the last 5 years and appropriate for the assignment criteria and relevant to nursing practice.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

Walden NURS6501 Week 10 Quiz Latest 2017

Question

Question 1

A 2-year-old male is diagnosed with Wilms tumor. Which of the following clinical conditions is often associated with this disease?

a. Cystic disease of the liver
b. Aniridia
c. Anemia
d. Hypothyroidism

Question 2

A nurse is preparing to teach about the loop of Henle. Which information should be included? The descending segment of the loop of Henle primarily allows for:

a. Sodium secretion
b. Potassium secretion
c. Hydrogen ion reabsorption
d. Water reabsorption

Question 3

A nurse is describing the trigone. Which information should be included? The trigone is defined as:

a. The orifice of the ureter
b. The inner area of the kidney
c. A triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra
d. The three divisions of the loop of Henle

Question 4

When the nurse discusses the glomerulus and Bowman capsule together, it is referred to as the renal:

a. Corpuscle
b. Capsule
c. Medulla
d. Pyramid

Question 5

A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis.History reveals that he had an infection 3 weeks before the onset of this condition. The infection was most likely located in the:

a. bone.
b. gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
c. respiratory tract.
d. ear.

Question 6

A 75-year-old male reports to his primary care provider loss of urine with cough, sneezing, or laughing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

a. Urge incontinence
b. Stress incontinence
c. Overflow incontinence
d. Functional incontinence

Question 7

A nurse observes on the chart that a patient is admitted with Wilms tumors. A nurse knows the tumors are found in the:

a. kidneys.
b. ureters.
c. bladder.
d. urethra.

Question 8

A 35-year-old female was severely burned and is hospitalized. She is now suffering from acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

a. Prerenal
b. Intrarenal
c. Extrarenal
d. Postrenal

Question 9

A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing obstruction. Which of the following symptoms would she most likely experience?

a. Anuria
b. Hematuria
c. Pyuria
d. Flank pain

Question 10

If a nurse wants to obtain the best estimate of renal function, which test should the nurse monitor?

a. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
b. Circulating antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels
c. Volume of urine output
d. Urine-specific gravity

Question 11

While planning care for a patient who has acute pyelonephritis. A nurse recalls the most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is:

a. Cystitis
b. Renal cancer
c. Urinary tract obstruction
d. Nephrotic syndrome

Question 12

When a nurse is preparing to teach about urine, which information should the nurse include? Just before entering the ureter, urine passes through the:

a. Collecting duct
b. Renal pelvis
c. Urethra
d. Major calyx

Question 13

When a patient’s renal system secretes rennin, what effect will that cause in the body? It causes the direct activation of:

a. Angiotensin I
b. Angiotensin II
c. Antidiuretic hormone
d. Aldosterone

Question 14

Anemia accompanies chronic renal failure because of:

a. Blood loss via the urine
b. Renal insensitivity to vitamin D
c. Inadequate production of erythropoietin
d. Inadequate retention of serum iron

Question 15

A 4-year-old male is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome.Which of the following assessment findings accompanies this condition?

a. Proteinuria
b. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Hematuria
d. Sodium loss

Question 16

A 19-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which she sustained a closed head injury. She is now experiencing detrusor sphincter dyssynergia. Which of the following is the most beneficial medication treatment?

a. Alpha blocker
b. Beta blocker
c. Vasodilator
d. Diuretic

Question 17

A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is:

a. cystitis.
b. chronic pyelonephritis.
c. acute glomerulonephritis.
d. renal calculi.

Question 18

A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. While planning care, the nurse realizes that the patient is expected to have hydronephrosis and a decreased glomerular filtration rate caused by:

a. decreased renal blood flow.
b. decreased peritubular capillary pressure.
c. dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces proximal to a blockage.
d. stimulation of antidiuretic hormone.

Question 19

A 15-year-old female presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever. Tests reveal glomerulonephritis. When the parents ask what could have caused this, how should the nurse respond?

a. poststreptococcal infection
b. nephropathy
c. nephrotic syndrome
d. potter syndrome

Question 20

A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with renal failure. While the nurse is reviewing lab results, which of the following lab values would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

a. Elevated plasma creatinine level
b. Decreased plasma potassium level
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Increased urea clearance

Question 21

While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is:

a. urine pH.
b. body temperature.
c. gender.
d. serum mineral concentrations.

Question 22

A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is:

a. cystitis.
b. chronic pyelonephritis.
c. acute glomerulonephritis.
d. renal calculi.

Question 23

A 55-year-old male presents reporting urinary retention.Tests reveal that he has a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse?

a. vesicoureteral reflux and pyelonephritis
b. formation of renal calculi
c. glomerulonephritis
d. increased bladder compliance

Question 24

The urologist is teaching about the nephrons that determine the concentration of the urine. The urologist is discussing the _____ nephrons.

a. Juxtamedullary
b. Midcortical
c. Cortical
d. Medullary

Question 25

A 42-year-old female is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is discussing dietary treatment. Which information indicates the nurse understands dietary regimen? Treatment includes restricting:

a. Fats
b. Complex carbohydrates
c. Proteins
d. Sugars

Question 26

When a newborn is admitted with urinary tract infections (UTIs), which type of infection will the nurse look for in the newborn?

a. blood-borne infections
b. infections caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract
c. yeast infections
d. viral infections

Question 27

A nurse is reviewing urinalysis results and notices glucose is present in the urine. A nurse realizes glucose will be excreted in the urine when:

a. The maximum rate of glucose filtration is achieved
b. The carrier molecules have reached their maximum
c. Glucose is consumed
d. The ability of the kidneys to regulate blood glucose is lost

Question 28

A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a lot of blood. The nurse realizes he is in acute renal failure caused by:

a. kidney stones
b. immune complex deposition in the glomerulus
c. inadequate renal blood flow
d. obstruction of the proximal tubule

Question 29

On average the kidneys receive approximately _____ of the cardiac output.

a. 10-14%
b. 15-19%
c. 20-25%
d. 26-35%

Question 30

When a nurse is checking the urinalysis, plasma proteins should be absent from the urine because:

a. all filtered proteins are subsequently reab-sorbed.
b. the texture of the covering surrounding plasma proteins interferes with reabsorp-tion.
c. filtered proteins are subsequently degrad-ed before elimination.
d. the negative charge of the glomerular fil-tration membrane repels the plasma pro-teins.

Question 31

A 3-year-old female presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs), fever, poor growth and development, and feeding problems.Tests reveal a retrograde flow of urine from the urinary bladder into the ureters. When giving report to the oncoming shift, the nurse will call this condition:

a. vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)
b. vesicourethral reflux
c. vesicoureteral influx
d. hydronephrosis

Question 32

A 6-year-old male is experiencing urine reflux from the urinary bladder into a grossly dilated ureter and calyces. He was diagnosed with vesicoureteral reflux. This condition would be graded:

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

Question 33

A 35-year-old hypertensive male begins taking a diuretic.Which of the following common side effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?

a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Increased uric acid secretion
d. Hypermagnesemia

Question 34

A 27-year-old male has a severe kidney obstruction leading to removal of the affected kidney. Which of the following would the nurse expect to occur?

a. atrophy of the remaining kidney
b. compensatory hypertrophy of the remaining kidney
c. dysplasia in the remaining kidney
d. renal failure

Question 35

When a child is admitted with acute renal failure, a clinician realizes the most common cause of acute renal failure is:

a. glomerulonephritis.
b. obstruction.
c. nephrotic syndrome.
d. hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS).

Question 36

A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

a. Nocturnal enuresis
b. Diurnal enuresis
c. Primary enuresis
d. Secondary enuresis

Question 37

While turning a patient with chronic renal failure, which principle should the nurse recall? Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic renal failure because:

a. calcium is lost in the urine
b. osteoblast activity is excessive
c. the kidneys fail to activate vitamin D
d. autoantibodies to calcium molecules develop

Question 38

A 56-year-old male presents with flank pain and polyuria.Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate. Which of the following types of renal failure should the nurse monitor for as it is the most likely to occur?

a. prerenal
b. intrarenal
c. extrarenal
d. postrenal

Question 39

A 15-year-old male was diagnosed with pharyngitis. Eight days later he developed acute glomerulonephritis. While reviewing the culture results, which of the following is the most likely cause of this disease?

a. Kelbsiella
b. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
c. genital herpes virus
d. group A B-hemolytic streptococcus

Question 40

A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, hematuria, and fever. Which of the following does the nurse suspect the patient is most likely experiencing?

a. acute cystitis
b. renal calculi
c. chronic renal failure
d. postrenal renal failure

Spanish Homework A+

OracionesRewrite the sentences using pronouns. Follow the model.

Modelo

Nos va a traer los platos.

Nos los va a traer. OR

Va a traérnoslos.

  1. Nos van a servir el café.
  2. Le estoy mostrando el menú.
  3. ¿Te sirvieron las papas fritas?
  4. Me va a traer el salmón.
  5. Les pedí una sopa de mariscos.

Más oracionesUse pronouns to rewrite the sentences without changing their meaning. Follow the model.

Modelo

¿Nos lo van a recomendar?

¿Van a recomendárnoslo?

  1. Se la estamos preparando.
  2. Te lo voy a repetir.
  3. ¿Me lo estás preparando?
  4. Se los debemos pedir.
  5. Tienes que mostrármelos.

PreguntasAnswer these questions in the affirmative, using pronouns.

  1. ¿Me estás recomendando ese libro?
  2. ¿Les sirve el té helado a ustedes?
  3. ¿Van a traerte la mantequilla?
  4. ¿Ellos nos tienen que mostrar las fotos?
  5. ¿Estás comprándole los camarones?

CompletarComplete the conversation using pronouns.

  1. ARTURO ¿Me compraste el vino tinto?

    LUIS Sí, (1) .

    ARTURO Y, ¿escogiste la música que vamos a escuchar?

    LUIS Sí, (2) .

    ARTURO ¿Me lavaste los platos?

    LUIS Sí, acabo de (3) .

    ARTURO ¿Qué me dices, Luis? ¿Debo ponerme esta corbata?

    LUIS Sí, (4) .

    ARTURO ¡Ay! ¿Y la comida? ¿Nos preparaste las chuletas de cerdo?

    LUIS ¡Tranquilo, Arturo! Yo ya (5) .