Please Check the Competencies:

Overview

Write 3–5 pages in which you describe a nursing informatics best practices policy for effective and safe data use in a nursing practice setting or organization.

By successfully completing this assessment, you will demonstrate your proficiency in the following course competencies and assessment criteria:

• Competency 2: Identify strategies and best practices for using informatics in nursing and health care.
  • Describe the best practices needed to promote and support data security.
  • Describe the ethical standards needed to promote patient confidentiality.
  • Describe regulatory requirements that promote and support positive patient outcomes related to a specific population.
  • Describe the types of behaviors and skills nurse leaders need to guide the use of information technology and research for improved patient-care outcomes.
• Competency 4: Communicate in a manner that is consistent with expectations of a nursing professional.
  • Write coherently to support a central idea in appropriate format with correct grammar, usage, and mechanics.

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of the business community.

• How do nurses develop best practice?
• How does research support best practice?
• What are best practices in your organization that you think are exemplars for improving patient care?
• What nursing roles should be in place to support the use of evidenced-based practice?
• How would you describe the concept of meaningful use and technology adoption stages: electronic health records (EHR) incentive programs, and how does this fit within the context of best practice?
• What are the main points to consider as you review The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), and why is this best practice?
• How does the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA) support patient safety and improved patient outcomes?

Assessment Instructions

Imagine an organization asks you to contribute to the development of an information system best-practices policy to help maintain patient safety and patient confidentiality in their practice setting. The organization wants you to create a document to help the group better understand why an informatics policy is needed and the practices that should be included in the policy.

A nursing informatics best-practices document can serve multiple purposes, such as a handout for new-hire orientation or as a background report given to a committee tasked with creating or updating a nursing informatics best-practices policy.

Preparation

To expand your understanding of nursing informatics best practices within the industry, research the most current information about the topics of nursing best-practices documents and nursing informatics best practices.

Using different methods (Web search, for example), locate 4–6 scholarly articles related to best practices designed to support positive patient outcomes related to the following areas:

• The meaning of secure data practices.
• Ethical standards needed to promote and support data security.
• Patient confidentiality.
• Regulatory requirements.
• Behaviors and skills nurse leaders need to guide the use of information technology and research for improved patient-care outcomes.

Directions

Create a description of a nursing informatics best-practices policy document designed to define and encourage effective and safe data use in a practice setting or organization.

• Purpose Statement: Statement of why an organization would create the policy. Include any reasons and intent that supports the creation of an informatics best-practices policy.
• Best Practices Definitions and Descriptions:
  • Definitions of secure practices, data security, and patient confidentiality.
  • Ethical standards.
  • Regulatory requirements.
• Implementation:
  • Behaviors – describe the behaviors nurse leaders will need to demonstrate that will guide implementation of the policy.
  • Skills required – describe the skills needed to ensure policy adherence.

Format your document using the professional format and style (corporate identity) used in your organization or practice setting. Note: If you are not currently working in an organizational setting, follow the formatting instructions below.

Additional Requirements

• Written communication: Ensure written communication is free of errors that detract from the overall message.
• APA formatting: Format resources and citations according to current APA style and formatting guidelines.
• Number of resources: Cite a minimum of four peer-reviewed resources.
• Length: Submit 3–5 typed, double-spaced pages.
• Font and font size: Use Times New Roman, 12 point.

Question 1 A patient asks the nurse practitioner about food sources such as soybeans and soy products. The nurse practitioner understands that these foods are considered

A) phytoestrogens.

B) monotherapy.

C) taboo.

D) inappropriate

Question 2 A 12-year-old boy is being discharged from the hospital after major surgery. The boy will be taking two medications at home for an extended period. The nurse who is discharging the patient should provide medication teaching specifically to

A) the mother regarding why the boy needs to take the medications.

B) both the boy and his mother regarding all medication issued.

C) the boy by telling him not to worry about the medications and to take them as directed

D) The mother and be sure to reinforce the need to force the medications, if her sondoes not want to take them

Question 3 A 15-year-old boy who has been taking dextroamphetamine for the treatment of ADHD has been experiencing a depressed mood and a sense of hopelessness. He confides in the school nurse that he has begun taking his stepfather’s antidepressant to improve his mood. After immediately phoning the boy’s stepfather, the nurse learns that the drug in question is phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). The nurse should recognize that this combination of drugs creates a serious risk of what health problem?

A) Cardiac dysrhythmia
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Hypokalemia

Question 4 A child is admitted to the burn unit with second and third degree burns on both arms and part of his or her face. When administering topical medications to the burned areas, the nurse should

A) cool the medication prior to administration.
B) use sterile technique when applying the medication.
C) allow the child to apply the medication if possible.
D) use clean technique only when applying the medication.

Question 5 A patient is being seen in the emergency department for a sprained ankle and is given a drug to relieve pain. When a second dose of the pain medication is given, the patient develops redness of the skin, itching, and swelling at the site of injection of the drug. The most likely cause of this response is

A) a hepatotoxic response.
B) an idiosyncratic response.
C) a paradoxical response.
D) an allergic response.

Question 6 A 5-year-old boy needs an IM injection. The least painful and most effective injection site would be the

A) deltoid muscle.
B) rectus femoris muscle.
C) ventrogluteal muscle.
D) dorsogluteal muscle.

Question 7 A patient reports to a clinic with complaints of breast tenderness, a right lumpy breast, and no breast discharge. The breast tenderness occurs primarily during her menstrual cycle. The nurse practitioner probably suspects

A) breast cancer

B) PMS

C) pain in the heart

D) cancerous breast tenderness

Question 8 A 29-year-old woman who is morbidly obese has recently begun a comprehensive, medically-supervised program of weight reduction. Prior to adding dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) to her regimen, the patient should be questioned about her intake of

A) alcohol.
B) trans fat.
C) caffeine.
D) grapefruit juice.

Question 9 A nurse is caring for a 10-year-old boy who complains of chronic headaches. His mother reports that she gives him Tylenol at least three times a day. Which of the following will the nurse work with the physician to evaluate?

A) Renal function
B) Hepatic function
C) Respiratory function
D) Cardiac function

Question 10 A 21-year-old female has a history of irregular menses. She recently became sexually active, and would like to begin taking oral contraceptives (OCs). The nurse practitioner recognizes that most likely this patient would benefit from taking which category of OCs.

A) Monophasic

B) Triphasic OC

C) Ortho Tri-Cyclen

D) Biphasic OC

Question 11 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric medicine unit has conducted a medication reconciliation of a recently-admitted patient. In light of the fact that the child takes methylphenidate (Ritalin), the nurse is justified in considering a history of what health problem?

A) Anxiety
B) Respiratory depression
C) Obesity
D) ADHD

Question 12 A nurse working in a cancer center is preparing to administer medication to a 5-year-old child. The nurse will calculate the drug dosage by using

A) body surface area.
B) weight.
C) age in months.
D) age in years.

Question 13 A 13-year-old female took a weight loss drug that activated the sympathetic nervous system. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect?

A) Decreased myocardial contraction
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Increased cardiac conduction
D) Increased intranodal conduction time

Question 14 A 6-month-old child has developed skin irritation due to an allergic reaction. He has been prescribed a topical skin ointment. The nurse will consider which of the following before administering the drug?

A) That the infant’s skin has greater permeability than that of an adult
B) That there is less body surface area to be concerned about
C) That there is decreased absorption rates of topical drugs in infants
D) That there is a lower concentration of water in an infant’s body compared with an adult

Question 15 A nurse is providing patient education to a 13-year-old girl who was just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the patient will alert the nurse that special instructions regarding insulin are necessary?

A) “I walk two blocks to school every day.”
B) “I am on the middle school track team.”
C) “We live in a two-story house.”
D) “My mother is going to give me my insulin.”

Question 16 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric unit of a hospital is aware that the potential for harm as a result of drug errors is higher among infants and children than adults. This fact is primarily due to

A) the inability of infants and children and describe symptoms of adverse drug reactions.
B) increased body surface area relative to body volume in infants and children.
C) increased heart rate and subsequently rapid drug distribution among infants and children.
D) immature liver and kidney function in infants and children.

Question 17 A nurse practitioner orders 150 mg of oral fluconazole for a patient with vulvovaginal candidiasis. The patient should expect to take medication

A) for 20 days.

B) once a day.

C) every day until the infection is gone.

D) for 30 days.

Question 18 To which of the following patients would a medication nurse most likely administer caffeine as part of the treatment plan?

A) A preterm neonate who has apnea
B) A 34-year-old woman with a diagnosis of gastric ulcerations
C) A school-age child with severe ADHD
D) A 52-year-old man with narcolepsy

Question 19 A nurse works at a weight management clinic. To which of the following overweight patients could the nurse safely administer dextroamphetamine?

A) A 38-year-old Caucasian woman with glaucoma
B) A 60-year-old African-American man who experiences angina
C) A 48-year-old Caucasian man who has adult-onset diabetes
D) A 28-year-old African-American woman with hyperthyroidism

Question 20 A 3-year-old boy has developed otitis media and requires antibiotics. In order to increase the chance that the boy will take his prescribed medication, the nurse should

A) teach the boy about the fact that he will feel much better after he takes his medications.
B) have the mother hold the child firmly and sooth him while the drugs are administered.
C) offer a choice between liquid and chewable medications, if possible.
D) insert a central intravenous line.

Question 21 The recommended treatment for trichomoniasis is

A) Flagyl.

B) Diflucan.

C) Meclizine.

D) Amoxicillan

Question 22 A school nurse has been teaching high school students about the risks associated with marijuana use. However, the nurse has been met with considerable skepticism on the part of students, most of whom believe that marijuana is a benign drug. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide?

A) “Most people don’t know that marijuana can be just as addictive as heroin or cocaine over time.”
B) “Marijuana can easily interact with other drugs and cause potentially fatal reactions.”
C) “Every year, thousands of Americans end up in emergency departments with marijuana overdoses.”
D) “Smoking marijuana is just as bad, or worse, for your lungs as smoking cigarettes.”

Question 23 A nurse is going to administer medication to an infant using a medicine dropper. The best method is to open the child’s mouth by gently squeezing the cheeks and placing the drops

A) at the back of the mouth.
B) in the buccal pouch.
C) under the tongue.
D) on top of the tongue.

Question 24 A nurse is obtaining baseline physical data from a 7-year-old patient who is to be started on dextroamphetamine for ADHD. After obtaining vital signs, height, and weight, the nurse will prepare the patient for an

A) electrocardiogram (ECG).
B) electromyelogram (EMG).
C) electroencephalogram (EEG).
D) electrophysiologic study (EPS).

Question 25 A 10-year-old boy is taking dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) daily for ADHD. At each clinic visit, the nurse’s priority assessment would be

A) height and weight.
B) Vision.
C) body temperature.
D) blood pressure.

Question 26 A 7-year-old child has been taking tetracycline for a bacterial infection. The nurse will be sure to inform the parents that this drug could cause

A) orange-tinged urine.
B) staining of permanent teeth.
C) sleep deprivation.
D) deep muscle pain.

Question 27 A nurse is administering drugs to a 10-year-old child who has multiple health problems.The child is underweight and is on a special diet. Which of the following will the nurse consider when planning for the best absorption of the prescribed drugs? (Select all that apply.)

A) Age
B) Weight
C) Disease process
D) Diet
E) Route of administration

ACDE

Question 28 The clinical nurse educator who oversees the emergency department in a children’s hospital has launched an awareness program aimed at reducing drug errors. What measure addresses the most common cause of incorrect doses in the care of infants and children?

A) Having nurses check their math calculations with a colleague before administering a drug.
B) Ensuring that a full assessment takes place no more than 30 minutes before giving a drug.
C) Recording drug administration in both the nurse’s notes and the medication administration record (MAR)
D) Avoiding intravenous administration of drugs whenever possible.

Question 29 A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with bone cancer after several months of fatigue and pain. What question should the nurse include in an assessment when trying to minimize the potential for adverse drug reactions?

A) “Do you ever use alcohol or drugs?”
B) “How much do you weigh?”
C) “On a scale of zero to ten, what level of pain is acceptable to you?”
D) “Did Tylenol or other over-the-counter pain remedies ever relieve your pain?”

Question 30 A 35-year-old woman is on a weight-loss program and is to begin taking sibutramine (Meridia). After baseline physical data are obtained, the nurse will assess the patient’s childbearing potential. The nurse will inform the patient that during sibutramine therapy she should

A) abstain from sex.
B) obtain a pap smear .
C) use adequate contraception.
D) take a pregnancy test every month.

Question 31 A 16-year-old boy is prescribed cromolyn sodium nasal spray to treat a nasal allergy. To maximize the therapeutic effects of the drug, which of the following will the nurse include in instructions to the patient?

A) Take the drug on a full stomach
B) Avoid high noise levels
C) Take the drug for one full week before coming in contact with allergens
D) Drink plenty of fluids.

Question 32 A 19-year-old patient reports to a clinic with vaginal discharge with a foul odor. A microscopic exam reveals trichomonas vaginalis.The nurse practitioner is aware that

A) trichomoniasis is an incurable disease.

B) trichomoniasis discharge is typically thin and clear.

C) asymptomatic women are diagnosed with trichomoniasis by a routine pap smear.

D) it is unusual to have an odor with trichomoniasis

Question 33 A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a minor ailment and is to be administered medications at home for 2 weeks. The child lives with his mother, grandmother, and four other children between the ages of 14 months and 7 years. The home health nurse is asked to assess the home environment to determine if it is appropriate for the child to take his medication at home. Which of the following will have the greatest impact on the nurse’s assessment?

A) The mother and grandmother’s understanding about the drugs
B) How clean the house is
C) The health status of the other children
D) Where the medications will be stored

Question 34 A nurse is having difficulty administering a bitter drug to a 5-year-old child. The nurse should

A) have the parent gently force the child’s mouth open.
B) give the drug in a pill form.
C) involve the child in a play therapy session, and then tell the child that the medicine is candy.
D) offer the child a flavored ice chip or ice pop prior to administering the drug.

Question 35 A 22-year-old woman has given birth to an infant who exhibits the signs and symptoms of maternal cocaine use during pregnancy.These signs and symptoms are a result of what pathophysiological effect of opioid use during pregnancy?

A) Changes in blood chemistry as a result of nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity
B) Impaired maternal nutrition as a result of drug use
C) Vasoconstriction leading to reduced placental blood flow
D) Hypoxia as a result of a prolonged second stage of labor

Question 36 A preterm neonate received caffeine for the treatment of apnea. The nurse should monitor the neonate for which of the following?

A) Bloody stools
B) Bradycardia
C) Constipation
D) Hypoglycemia

Question 37 A 30-year-old man with a BMI of 59 has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. In light of the man’s lack of success with weight loss programs in the past, his care provider has prescribed sibutramine (Meridia). What instructions should the nurse consequently provide to this patient?

A) “Take this drug once each day on an empty stomach.”
B) “It’s best to take a dose of sibutramine after each meal.”
C) “This drug will help you to lose weight without having to exercise or change your normal diet.”
D) “Take a dose when you feel like you are tempted to binge on food.”

Question 38 A nurse practitioner orders a single dose of 2 g Metronidazole orally. How many milligrams will the patient receive in one dose?

A) 1000 mg

B) 2000 mg

C) 3000 mg

D) 4000 mg

Question 39 A nurse is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old child suffering from angina why nitroglycerin patches for chest pain would not be appropriate. Which of the following will the nurse include in an explanation?

A) A child has an erratic blood flow from an immature peripheral circulation, which increases drug absorption, causing an increase in adverse effects.
B) A child’s gastric pH is decreased, causing less of the drug to be absorbed from the subcutaneous skin, therefore producing more adverse effects.
C) A child has a greater body surface area, creating greater permeability resulting in an increase in absorption of topical agents, which may result in more adverse effects.
D) A child has a smaller body surface area, resulting in an increase in topical absorption, which can cause more adverse effects.

Question 40 An immunocompromised 7-year-old child was recently discharged home with a peripherally-inserted central line (PIC line) for home antibiotic therapy. He has now been brought to the emergency department by his mother and father with signs and symptoms of line sepsis.Upon questioning, the mother states that she has been removing the PIC dressing daily and washing the site with warm water and a cloth. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?

A) Caregiver Role Strain
B) Ineffective Family Therapeutic Regimen Management
C) Delayed Growth and Development
D) Knowledge Deficit

Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest 2017

Question 1

A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:

a. Visceral
b. Somatic
c. Parietal
d. Referred

Question 2

An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?

a. Insufficient bile production
b. Gastric atrophy
c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid
d. Nutrient malabsorption

Question 3

In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:

a. acetaldehyde accumulation.
b. bile toxicity.
c. acidosis.
d. fatty infiltrations.

Question 4

Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?

a. Sinusoids
b. Bile ducts
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Hepatic artery

Question 5

Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:

a. fat-soluble vitamins.
b. carbohydrates.
c. protein.
d. calcium and magnesium.

Question 6

A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Question 7

Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:

a. children have lower adipose reserves.
b. fluid reserves are lower in children.
c. children have a lower metabolic rate.
d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.

Question 8

A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:

a. Intussusception
b. A volvulus
c. A hernia
d. Adhesions

Question 9

A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:

a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow

Question 10

Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?

a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper quadrant
c. Epigastric
d. Suprapubic

Question 11

A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?

a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Ingestion of salty foods
d. Frequent use of antacids

Question 12

The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?

a. Fecal impaction
b. Pancreatic insufficiency
c. Hyperactive peristalsis
d. Ileal atresia

Question 13

The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:

a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen
d. Atherosclerosis

Question 14

The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.

a. rectal
b. duodenal
c. esophageal
d. intestinal

Question 15

A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:

a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux

Question 16

The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:

a. Constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Vomiting
d. Heartburn

Question 17

A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:

a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Alcoholism
d. Drug overdose

Question 18

Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:

a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
c. impaired ammonia metabolism.
d. decreased cerebral blood flow.

Question 19

The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:

a. diverticulosis.
b. hemorrhoids.
c. esophageal varices.
d. cancer.

Question 20

A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:

a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility
b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea
c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility
d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility

Question 21

A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:

a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct

Question 22

A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:

a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus

Question 23

For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?

a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric

Question 24

Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:

a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.

Question 25

A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:

a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation

Question 26

A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.

a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling

Question 27

Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:

a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.

Question 28

Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):

a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia

Question 29

The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:

a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding

Question 30

The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?

a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites

Question 31

A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.

a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic

Question 32

Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?

a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea

Question 33

A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:

a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia

Question 34

The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:

a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.

Question 35

Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Problems     Chapter 3: P3-5, P3-9 P3-10, P3-22;

Chapter 4: P4-1, P4-4, P4-7, P4-8

Week     2
P3-5  Everdeen Mining, Inc., ended 2015 with a net profit before taxes of $436,000.   The company is subject to a 40% tax rate and must pay $64,000 in preferred stock dividends before distributing any earnings on the 170,000 shares of common stock currently outstanding.        a. Calculate Philagem’s 2015 earnings per share (EPS)
b. If the firm paid common stock dividends of $0.80 per share, how many dollars would go to retained earnings?

P3-9 Initial sale prince of common stock
Haymitch Corporation has one issue of preferred stock and one issue of common stock outstanding.  Given Beck’s stockholders’ equity account that follows, determine the original price per share at which the firm sold its single issue of common stock.
P3-10 Statement of retained earnins
Hayes Enterprises began 2015 with a retained earnings balance of $928,000. During 2015, the firm earned $377,000 after taxes.  From this amount, preferred stockholders were paid $47,000 in dividends.  At year-end 2015, the firm’s retained earnings totaled $1,048,000.  The firm had 140,000 shares of common stock outstanding during 2015.

a. Prepare a statement of retained earnings for the year ended December 31, 2012 for Hayes Enterprises.  (Note: be sure to calculate and include the amon of cash dividends paid in 2012.
b. Calculate the firm’s 2015 earnings per share (EPS)
c. How large a per-share cash dividend did the firm pay on common stock during 2015?
P4-1 Depreciation
On March 20, 2015, Norton Systems acquired two new assets.  Asset A was research equipment costing $17,000 and having a 3-year recovery period.  Asset B was duplicating equipment having an installed cost of $45,000 and a 5-year recovery period.  Using the MACRS depreciation percentages in Table 4.2, prepare a depreciation schedule for each of these assets.

P4-4 Depreciation and accounting cash flow
A firm in the third year of depreciating its only asset, which originally cost $180,000 and has a 5-year MACRS recovery period, has gathered the following data relative to the current year’s operations:

Accruals            $15,000
Current assets            $1,20,000
Interest expense            $15,000
Sales revenue            $4,00,000
Inventory            $70,000
Total costs before depreciation, interest, and taxes            $2,90,000
Tax rate on ordinary income            40%

a. Use the relevant data to determine the operating cash flow (see Equation 4.2) for the current year.

P4-7 A firm has actual sales of $65,000 in April and $60,000 in May.  It expects sales of $70,000 in June and $100,000 in July and in August.  Assuming that sales are the only source of cash inflows and that half of them are for cash and the remainder are collected evenly over the following 2 months, what are the firm’s expected cash receipts for June, July and August?

P4-8 Cash disbursement schedule
Maris Brothers, Inc., needs a cash disbursement schedule for the months of April, May, and June.  Use the format of Table 4.9 and the following information in its preparation.